One significant difference between translations in recent years concerns “sexist language”. In the past, in English, “man” was commonly used in an inclusive sense that implied both men and women. This is no longer common usage. In other ways too such “sexist language” might now be understood to exclude women. Several Bible translations try to avoid misunderstandings by being “inclusive”.
The NIV does not always use inclusive language, so in John 1:2 it reads: “In him was life, and that life was the light of men.” Does this mean Jesus does not enlighten women!? It is worth thinking about whether the translation you use in public is inclusive, or seems to exclude women from God’s promises and warnings!